Distinguishing Greek and Greek
Michael Everson
everson at evertype.com
Wed Mar 16 14:19:04 CET 2005
At 12:21 +0200 2005-03-16, Panagiotis Sikas wrote:
>Goodmornig to all.
Kali mera. :-)
>I think that the whole discussion is limited to what is called "modern Greek".
Well, not "archaic" Greek, certainly.
>In such case there is only one script (el). except from the absence
>of some diacritical marks, the orthography between the monotonic and
>the polytonic is the same. Monotonic was established (officialy) in
>1982, and the only change
>was the removal of the diacritical marks.
Right, so there shouldn't be ISO 15924 tags, since there is not a
script difference, and there should be RFC 3066 tags, since there is
an orthography difference.
>Greek was a well known bi-lingual (excuse me if the term is not
>correct) language. There were in the near past two variants of the
>Greek language, with different orthography between them.
Orthography? I understand the difference between Katharevousa and
Dimotiki to be one of vocabulary choice and register, not of spelling.
>In any case the script used was exactly the same. There is no
>difference in the way letters are represented. Again only the
>orthography changes (but we have a major orthographical change).
Again, glad to have you confirm this.
>A script change happened back in 1453. Until 1453 the script used
>was archaic Greek (Ancient Greek) where we have some more characters
>involved. But I believe this sould be in accordance to iso 639-2 and
>go with the "grc" language code.
Not quite sure what you mean here.
>If the goal of language tags is to cover also orthographical
>changes, el-monoton/el-polyton covers only the modern Greek.
And that covers the (immediate) need to have word-processing tools
like spell-checkers for modern data.
--
Michael Everson * * Everson Typography * * http://www.evertype.com
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