gender voice variants

[Yury Tarasievich]

Yet there is no such thing as "gender 
speech/mode" for the *text* as a whole, in East 
Slavonics at least. You can't take a text and 
ascribe any kind of a mode depending on an 
actor/recipient combination. Inflections do not 
determine styles. An arbitrary phrase may 
contain a noun/pronoun in a form of phem. genus, 
and still not belong to a separate "mode/gender".

I'm native Russian/Belarusian speaker, for what 
it's worth.


-Yury

On 12/20/2012 02:13 PM, Milos Rancic wrote:
> On Thu, Dec 20, 2012 at 6:50 AM, Yury Tarasievich
> <yury.tarasievich at gmail.com> wrote:
>> There is no such thing.
>>
>> Yes, there might be pronouns of masc./fem. genera, but these do not
>> determine any "gender" of speech. It's possible to be not able to tell an
>> originator without a semantic analysis, or without a context, even.
>
> It is different when female ("смотрела") or male uses ("смотрел") past
> tense and past tense is quite often.
>