Distinguishing Greek and Greek
everson at evertype.com
Wed Mar 9 02:25:23 CET 2005
At 17:11 -0800 2005-03-08, Mark Davis wrote:
> >The difference between monotonic and polytonic is
>not a distinction of script. Every single one of
>the letters used is Greek, and has EXACTLY the
>Actually, I don't think that is quite true. Fonts used for monotonic tend to
>have more vertical accents. But Yannis can say more.
That is still not a script difference in the way
it is defined in ISO 15924. And I said that every
single one of the LETTERS used is Greek, and has
exactly the same shape etc. The only difference
between the two is that one uses one set of
diacritical marks, and one uses another, with
overlap at least with the DIALYTIKA if not the
> > Not at all. Hans and Hant differ because entirely
>different ideographs are used, which is clearly a
>significant script variation.
>Well, entirely different characters (from the user's perspective) are being
>used for polytonic.
> ¿ U+03AC GREEK SMALL LETTER ALPHA WITH TONOS
> Éø U+03B1 GREEK SMALL LETTER ALPHA
There is only one alpha there.
> ? U+1F00 GREEK SMALL LETTER ALPHA WITH PSILI
> ? U+1F01 GREEK SMALL LETTER ALPHA WITH DASIA
> ? U+1F02 GREEK SMALL LETTER ALPHA WITH PSILI AND VARIA
> ? U+1F03 GREEK SMALL LETTER ALPHA WITH DASIA AND VARIA
> ? U+1F04 GREEK SMALL LETTER ALPHA WITH PSILI AND OXIA
> ? U+1F05 GREEK SMALL LETTER ALPHA WITH DASIA AND OXIA
That's the same alpha.
The difference is one of SPELLING, not one of
SCRIPT. One orthography spells with lots of
accents, the other does not.
>From a practical point of view, I'm not sure that there is such a bright
>line between script and orthography as you would suggest.
What you propose is in no way analogous to the
script-variant distinction between Latn and Latf
Had we not disunified Coptic from Greek, a valid
variant of Grek might have been Grcp. But that's
not what you're talking about.
Michael Everson * * Everson Typography * * http://www.evertype.com
More information about the Ietf-languages